Do you think there are any rules in war?

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DeletedUser

Hehe, very silly to argue what "severe" constitutes when you conveniently ignored everything else written in the Convention Against Torture (CAT), including Article 16. I'm sure everyone realizes you're trying to win an argument by getting in the last word (attrition).

Anyway, it seems rather clear you're making it a prerequisite for someone to have been convicted of waterboarding in the U.S. prior to the Iraq war in order for waterboarding to be considered a crime, which is a preposterous postulate.
 
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DeletedUser30834

Hehe, very silly to argue what "severe" constitutes when you conveniently ignored everything else written in the Convention Against Torture (CAT), including Article 16. I'm sure everyone realizes you're trying to win an argument by getting in the last word (attrition).
Nothing is silly but your preconceived notions. Article 16 refers to punishment and the interrogations were not punishment. The US ratified the CAT treaty with a signing statement limiting the effects of article 16 to coincide with US law. This signing statement and reservation is available on the UN's website had you taken the time to bother knowing what you are talking about. There is even a diddy about what severe means. Again, you lose.

Anyway, it seems rather clear you're making it a prerequisite for someone to have been convicted of waterboarding in the U.S. prior to the Iraq war in order for waterboarding to be considered a crime, which is a preposterous postulate.
Yes, I am making it a prerequisit that something actually be illegal before someone acts and has those actions retroactively declared illegal. It is not a hard concept to follow and I'm saddened that you seem to think it is improper or preposterous. I would hope that you never partake in an activity that is legal only to have it declared illegal by a group of people who dislike you (as I know there are some) after the fact and you become railroaded into jail. That is exactly the possibility you are encouraging because of your blind hatred towards Bush and Company.

I'm sorry, but you fail on so many levels that it is probably more wise to abandon this conversation then to keep it going.
 

DeletedUser16008

About 80% of the planet hated Bush & his cronies whats special about that ?

Some things need to be addressed after the fact not before it. Just try using your argument after WWII at Nuremberg ;)

oh and add Tony Blair and co to that list as well...
 

DeletedUser

Yes, I am making it a prerequisit that something actually be illegal before someone acts and has those actions retroactively declared illegal.
Well thank you, Sumdumass, for walking right into that:
" ... following World War II war crime trials were convened. The Japanese were tried and convicted and hung for war crimes committed against American POWs. Among those charges for which they were convicted was waterboarding." ~ Republican Senator John McCain - http://www.politifact.com/truth-o-m...ory-supports-mccains-stance-on-waterboarding/

Whoop, there it is... precedence. Strike 1

Article 16 refers to punishment and the interrogations were not punishment.
Nope, it refers to "acts of cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment."

Strike 2

The US ratified the CAT treaty with a signing statement limiting the effects of article 16 to coincide with US law.
Nope again, it asserted that the U.S. will abide by it according to the 5th, 8th & 14th U.S. Constitutional Amendments.

I'm sure you'll agree, waterboarding is in violation of those Constitutional Amendments, or perhaps you think the police are allowed to perform waterboarding?

"In 1983, federal prosecutors charged a Texas sheriff and three of his deputies with violating prisoners' civil rights by forcing confessions. The complaint alleged that the officers conspired to, "subject prisoners to a suffocating water torture ordeal in order to coerce confessions. This generally included the placement of a towel over the nose and mouth of the prisoner and the pouring of water in the towel until the prisoner began to move, jerk, or otherwise indicate that he was suffocating and/or drowning." The four defendants were convicted, and the sheriff was sentenced to 10 years in prison." ~http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2007/11/02/AR2007110201170.html

Strike 3

... it is probably more wise to abandon this conversation then to keep it going.
Indeed... but I'm sure you're tempted to put in the last word, so by all means. ;)
 

DeletedUser30834

About 80% of the planet hated Bush & his cronies whats special about that ?
There is nothing special about the hate. What is special is about letting the hate blind people into unfair accusations and attempting to create legal liability and charges that they would otherwise be completely against. It isn't a difficult concept.

Some things need to be addressed after the fact not before it. Just try using your argument after WWII at Nuremberg ;)
I'm glad you brought this up. Did you know that a majority of the legal profession in the US was against the Nuremberg trials? The chief justice of the US supreme court Harlan F. Stone, called it a fraud and claimed associate justice Jackson was on a lynching party. Associate Supreme Court Justice William O. Douglas claimed the allies were "substituting power for principle" and "Law was created ex post facto to suit the passion and clamor of the time." The US attorney sent over to act as chief prosecutor Robert H. Jackson, never graduated from any law school too. Robert Jackson also said in a letter to Truman the allies have done and were still doing the same things we were prosecuting the Germans for.

So I guess the question to you might be, does two wrongs make a right? Or maybe better yet, what does the current situation where the claim of wrong doing is against the victor have in comment with the prosecution of the losers of a war?

As for you Hellstromm, it is nice that you can count to three and wanted to show everyone. However, you should have premised on something that wasn't spoiled from the start.

Well thank you, Sumdumass, for walking right into that:
" ... following World War II war crime trials were convened. The Japanese were tried and convicted and hung for war crimes committed against American POWs. Among those charges for which they were convicted was waterboarding." ~ Republican Senator John McCain - http://www.politifact.com/truth-o-m...ory-supports-mccains-stance-on-waterboarding/
Whoop, there it is... precedence. Strike 1
I think it's nice that you bring up a republican senator who made comments while trying to get the Job Bush held at the time. However. I have looked at the transcripts of the IMTFE and not one Japanese was charged with water-boarding. There were some charged with torturing POWs and water boarding was listed among the several dozen other methods of torture along with orders giving by ranking Japanese officials at the time claiming torturing prisoners for information was a duty the soldier had. You see, the difference goes back to the definition of severe. If it was used as a broader regiment of torture, the case can be made. But by all means, why don't you look at the Nuremberg Trials and the IMTFE and see the types of criticisms against it. They were more or less nothing more then politically instituted vengeance with little basis in real law as was said by members of the US supreme court. We used to prosecute blacks for marrying white girls, does that mean we still should? Just because you think you have found an example of what most legal professionals at the time considered fraud and the victors esousing vengence on the losers does not make it relevant or right.


Nope, it refers to "acts of cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment."

Strike 2

Nope again, it asserted that the U.S. will abide by it according to the 5th, 8th & 14th U.S. Constitutional Amendments.

I'm sure you'll agree, waterboarding is in violation of those Constitutional Amendments, or perhaps you think the police are allowed to perform waterboarding?
"In 1983, federal prosecutors charged a Texas sheriff and three of his deputies with violating prisoners' civil rights by forcing confessions. The complaint alleged that the officers conspired to, "subject prisoners to a suffocating water torture ordeal in order to coerce confessions. This generally included the placement of a towel over the nose and mouth of the prisoner and the pouring of water in the towel until the prisoner began to move, jerk, or otherwise indicate that he was suffocating and/or drowning." The four defendants were convicted, and the sheriff was sentenced to 10 years in prison." ~http://www.washingtonpost.com/wp-dyn/content/article/2007/11/02/AR2007110201170.html
Strike 3
You are correct, it is treatment or punishment. The italics in the signing statement made the _or_ look like a _for_. But that doesn't detract from the illegitimacy of the claim you made because the signing statement clearly states that the US will only apply teh article as far as the amendments are concerned and as we know, the enemy combatants do not get the full civil rights afforded to citizens and people who are otherwise within the US jurisdiction legally by the constitution. There is less ambiguity when a government official acts on it's civilian population then when a government agency acts outside it. It's an ex post facto law if you attempt to claim it was legally defined as torture in the way it was used at the time it was used.

Indeed... but I'm sure you're tempted to put in the last word, so by all means. ;)
Yeah, There was just so much wrong with what you said, I had to comment. Is that your goal, just say wrong and incredibly biased things in order to get people to post in these forums? I've noticed that participation in them are extremely low. I'll have my power back in a few days and I won't be near as bored and probably leave them again.
 

DeletedUser

This thread is pretty much all off-topic now. For all your trying to exonerate Bush Jnr et al you haven't really addressed the topic of whether you think there are rules in war or not.
As for the forums being rather lifeless, I would agree, but I think it's contributors like you, who address the posters rather than the issues that are part of the problem. You seem to want to abuse anyone who is not in agreement with you, and most people would be reluctant to participate on that basis.
 
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DeletedUser16008

This thread is pretty much all off-topic now. For all your trying to exonerate Bush Jnr et al you haven't really addressed the topic of whether you think there are rules in war or not.

Unfortunately this is indeed the case. Either keep it on the thread topic or I will be forced to lock it down.
 

DeletedUser30834

This thread is pretty much all off-topic now. For all your trying to exonerate Bush Jnr et al you haven't really addressed the topic of whether you think there are rules in war or not.
As for the forums being rather lifeless, I would agree, but I think it's contributors like you, who address the posters rather than the issues that are part of the problem. You seem to want to abuse anyone who is not in agreement with you, and most people would be reluctant to participate on that basis.

The only thing off topic was a player posting nothing but an imsult attempting to flame another player. My comment about bush and Cheney were born directly from the topic and espoused the concept that in order for any rule of war to be valid, it has to be clearly and plainly understood and agreed to by all parties who would be held liable to those rules before any claimed violation are valid. Bush and company which was brought up by another player only illustrates this concept of fairness.

AZ for my style of debating, you are probably tripping over you shoes trying to find something to pit on your feet. Even if I'm part of the problem, it's just part of it.
 

DeletedUser

AZ for my style of debating, you are probably tripping over you shoes trying to find something to pit on your feet. Even if I'm part of the problem, it's just part of it.
Nope, you're trolling. And like those who troll, you attempt to get a thread locked when you're getting pwned.

The only thing off topic was a player posting nothing but an imsult attempting to flame another player.
Nope, Diggo posted a comment I made to him in Skype, my prediction as to how someone who trolls would respond to being pwned. You posted exactly as I predicted, no insult posed by Diggo.

You attempt to repeatedly obfuscate the debate, pose fallacious arguments, move the goalposts. And, you know what? That's okay, as long as you keep the goalposts in the playing field, as long as you focus on the topic instead of tangents, focus on the debate instead of the people debating, the staff, or the company hosting the forums. Unfortunately, this is something you just can't seem to manage, and now you're working to have the thread locked.

Meh...

My comment about bush and Cheney were born directly from the topic and espoused the concept that in order for any rule of war to be valid, it has to be clearly and plainly understood and agreed to by all parties who would be held liable to those rules before any claimed violation are valid.
Ultimately, the topic is, "do you think there are any rules in war?" Rules regarding torture are associated with rules of war. You claimed those rules (specifically, the rules of torture as they pertain to the Bush era) didn't exist until recently and also made it a prerequisite for someone to have been convicted of an action before it is considered a rule or law, which was a preposterous notion (laws/rules are first put into effect, then people are prosecuted) but I nonetheless demonstrated, even with your preposterous dependency, that prior to the Iraq war there were indeed people convicted of the actions of torture (specifically, waterboarding, which was previously referred to as water-curing). Rules of war exist and have existed, rules on torture (in and out of war) exist and have existed, rules on the specific type of torture commonly referred to as waterboarding, likewise exist and has existed. Enforcement of said rules is often hampered by politics, but the rules, the laws, do exist and have existed.
 
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DeletedUser

....in order for any rule of war to be valid, it has to be clearly and plainly understood and agreed to by all parties who would be held liable to those rules before any claimed violation are valid.
Hmmmm. Are you saying then that the Nazis could not be prosecuted for genocide because they did not first agree that gassing Jews was wrong? Because that's what the quoted statement implies.
 

DeletedUser30834

Nope, you're trolling. And like those who troll, you attempt to get a thread locked when you're getting pwned.
So who is continuing the off topic discussion. Isn't this a little more then the pot calling the kettle black? Either way, you are wrong just like when on topic and you claimed Cheney admitted to war crimes which exists nowhere but in your imagination.


Nope, Diggo posted a comment I made to him in Skype,
I think that is well established. The problem came up when your comment in skype has nothing to do with the topic or parts of the conversation within the topic and instead consisted of an insult and nothing else of substance.

You attempt to repeatedly obfuscate the debate, pose fallacious arguments, move the goalposts. And, you know what? That's okay, as long as you keep the goalposts in the playing field, as long as you focus on the topic instead of tangents, focus on the debate instead of the people debating, the staff, or the company hosting the forums. Unfortunately, this is something you just can't seem to manage, and now you're working to have the thread locked.
Nothing posted by me was obfuscating anything or fallacious in the least. Because you do not want to believe something does not in any way make it false or unreal or invalid. Yes, you could read some of what I said as splitting hairs, but the fact of the matter is that I said from the absolute beginning that in order for rules of war to be valid, they have to be present and understood before the actions taken place are considered in violation of them. You might not like it, but if it is not completely understood to be illegal, then all the sudden declaring it is an ex post facto law that runs contrary to the foundation of the legal system the United States was founded with.

Ultimately, the topic is, "do you think there are any rules in war?" Rules regarding torture are associated with rules of war. You claimed those rules (specifically, the rules of torture as they pertain to the Bush era) didn't exist until recently
No, you see, you keep failing because you keep refusing to pay attention to detail. I said the rules of war existed, that the acts you claim violated them were not violations in the US until recently. There is a distinct and stout difference in positions there that you should be aware of if you are attempting to seriously debate this.

and also made it a prerequisite for someone to have been convicted of an action before it is considered a rule or law, which was a preposterous notion (laws/rules are first put into effect, then people are prosecuted)
Again, you have completely misrepresented any position I have held. I said it has to be illegal before the act was committed in order for it to be illegal after the act was committed. You bringing up situations where the army code of conduct declared it illegal for army does not make it illegal for the CIA as they are not subjected to the same subset of laws and rules. You brought up cases where civilian police got in trouble for doing those acts on citizens and people subject to US jurisdiction but failed somehow to realize the sheriffs were convicted of violating their "civil rights" not of torture or war crimes. You brought up claims that WWII enemy soldiers were convicted of torture and water boarding was referenced but failed to realize that water boarding was just one act they were accused of to make the claim torture and it was the circumstances in it's entirety that created the torture. This is even despite the fact that the legal profession including members of the US supreme court thought that the Nuremberg and IMTFE trials was wrong and ex post facto in violation of US legal principle. It doesn't even need the fact that the US representative sent to oversee the Nuremberg trials and act as prosecutor had never graduated from a legal school or held a law degree and even wrote President Truman in protest that the allies had done or were still doing many of the things they were attempting to charge and convict, while in some cases impose capitol punishment onto the axis powers.

Hmmmm. Are you saying then that the Nazis could not be prosecuted for genocide because they did not first agree that gassing Jews was wrong? Because that's what the quoted statement implies.
It is not just a matter of if they agree or not, it is a matter of jurisdictional law being implemented before or after the fact of the accused crime. This would require a sovereign nation to actually consent to the jurisdiction of any laws created outside their sovereignty. And yes, many of the accusations against Nazis were ex post facto law due to the fact that Germany was not part of many agreements implementing some of the charges against them and some where not even immortalized in international treaty until years after the war was over. That runs counter to the very principles of freedom and law built into the United States. This was even explained by members of the US supreme court concerning the Nuremberg and ITMFE trials as they objected to the US's participation in them. Politics and vengence ended up winning over legal principle and laws or rules that were not in place before the war were used to convict and even kill Nazis for acts only illegal after the act had been committed. One Nazi sentenced to death was done so in abstention without ever having the opportunity to defend himself. Does that seem like a fair and legit legal proceeding to you? Forget about what they were accused of, what if your country decided to give the death penalty during trials in which the convicted and now condemned never appeared in.

From an emotional historical viewpoint, perhaps even a perverted moral viewpoint, most of us can agree that it was probably a good thing to do. But the fairness of it all points to it not being just within the US legal system as it punishes legal acts ( even if not illegal only by the lack of a law with jurisdictional coverage making it illegal), however horrid and reprehensible they might be, before any laws making them illegal were implemented.

I might note, it is a completely separate thing to claim a broad term is illegal by law, and then push a narrow act into that definition. For instance, if not keeping your pants pulled up is a crime defined by law, changing your pants which would seemingly violate the law because one would have to pull their pants down in order to remove them and put new ones on, is not necessarily a violation of the law. Similarly, wearing a kilt or a dress would not automatically be a violation of that law even though you couldn't keep your pants pulled up if you were not wearing any. It is considered a war crime to kill civilians in an occupied territory but it is not considered a war crime to kill them in your defense when they attack your position. Little is black and white and most is left to interpretation and those interpretations need to be consistent and understood in order to maintain the legitimacy of any conviction.
 
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DeletedUser

It is not just a matter of if they agree or not, it is a matter of jurisdictional law being implemented before or after the fact of the accused crime. This would require a sovereign nation to actually consent to the jurisdiction of any laws created outside their sovereignty. And yes, many of the accusations against Nazis were ex post facto law due to the fact that Germany was not part of many agreements implementing some of the charges against them and some where not even immortalized in international treaty until years after the war was over. That runs counter to the very principles of freedom and law built into the United States. This was even explained by members of the US supreme court concerning the Nuremberg and ITMFE trials as they objected to the US's participation in them. Politics and vengence ended up winning over legal principle and laws or rules that were not in place before the war were used to convict and even kill Nazis for acts only illegal after the act had been committed. One Nazi sentenced to death was done so in abstention without ever having the opportunity to defend himself. Does that seem like a fair and legit legal proceeding to you? Forget about what they were accused of, what if your country decided to give the death penalty during trials in which the convicted and now condemned never appeared in.

From an emotional historical viewpoint, perhaps even a perverted moral viewpoint, most of us can agree that it was probably a good thing to do. But the fairness of it all points to it not being just within the US legal system as it punishes legal acts ( even if not illegal only by the lack of a law with jurisdictional coverage making it illegal), however horrid and reprehensible they might be, before any laws making them illegal were implemented.
.

SDA you seem to be saying that first of all a law has to exist, and secondly that all parties must agree to it for it to be binding.
I disagree - I may not agree to the law on theft, but it does not mean I can steal without punishment. Laws can be enforced without agreement by force majeure.
I'm not interested in US domestic law, so I'll skip those parts of your arguments concerning that. However, Nuremberg was an international court, so US law is irrelevant except perhaps for the US personnel involved. The wider issue is that Germany abrogated many of its international rights and obligations when it left The League of Nations and subsequently when it waged war in complete defiance of the laws of the states it invaded. So it could hardly claim the protection of such laws when it was itself invaded as a consequence. The only beneficiaries at Nuremberg were the accused, because without the moderation of the Western allies the Russians would have been far more punitive.
 

DeletedUser30834

SDA you seem to be saying that first of all a law has to exist, and secondly that all parties must agree to it for it to be binding.
I disagree - I may not agree to the law on theft, but it does not mean I can steal without punishment. Laws can be enforced without agreement by force majeure.
I'm not interested in US domestic law, so I'll skip those parts of your arguments concerning that. However, Nuremberg was an international court, so US law is irrelevant except perhaps for the US personnel involved. The wider issue is that Germany abrogated many of its international rights and obligations when it left The League of Nations and subsequently when it waged war in complete defiance of the laws of the states it invaded. So it could hardly claim the protection of such laws when it was itself invaded as a consequence. The only beneficiaries at Nuremberg were the accused, because without the moderation of the Western allies the Russians would have been far more punitive.

First, you are not a sovereign state. You do not have the ability to reject laws not created within your right of sovereignty. But lets assume you were. Let's say you are the ruler of eliville, an internationally recognized country independent of any other country. So lets say the US wanted to make farting in public illegal, does it automatically make it illegal in eliville? Not unless eliville surenders its sovereignty to the US or otherwise agrees to make it illegal. A foreign power cannot just claim legal jurisdiction over another country and impose its laws or rules. It can however invade or somehow by force gain control over eliville and impose its laws on it.but if it does so, retroactively enforcement of laws that eliville was never subject to for acts that happened before the jurisdiction of the new laws came into effect, would be ex post facto or prosecution for laws created after the fact.

In the US, this is prohibited within the constitution and our entire legal system declares it unjust if it happens
Germany simply was not under the jurisdiction of many of the laws used to prosecute the Nazis. England and France have or had similar laws at the time too. The only reason the Germans where prosecuted the way they were was because they lost and the allies wanted to retaliate on them. The only rights they lost were due to loosing the war.
 
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DeletedUser

First, you are not a sovereign state. You do not have the ability to reject laws not created within your right of sovereignty. But lets assume you were. Let's say you are the ruler of eliville, an internationally recognized country independent of any other country. So lets say the US wanted to make farting in public illegal, does it automatically make it illegal in eliville? Not unless eliville surenders its sovereignty to the US or otherwise agrees to make it illegal. A foreign power cannot just claim legal jurisdiction over another country and impose its laws or rules. It can however invade or somehow by force gain control over eliville and impose its laws on it.but if it does so, retroactively enforcement of laws that eliville was never subject to for acts that happened before the jurisdiction of the new laws came into effect, would be ex post facto or prosecution for laws created after the fact.

In the US, this is prohibited within the constitution and our entire legal system declares it unjust if it happens
Germany simply was not under the jurisdiction of many of the laws used to prosecute the Nazis. England and France have or had similar laws at the time too. The only reason the Germans where prosecuted the way they were was because they lost and the allies wanted to retaliate on them. The only rights they lost were due to loosing the war.
If you're saying that a nation state is a legal entity in the way that an individual is not, then you must accept that there are laws that apply to it outside its own national jurisdiction because it can only be legally constituted inter alia the community of nation-states as a whole.
You say one state cannot impose its rules on another, but that's exactly what Germany did with its race laws, requisitioning, and forced labour on countries it invaded. In violating the laws of other communities it revoked its own right to international legal protection. The allies unilaterally offered some legal rights to the arraigned Nazis in order to demonstrate a greater moral sensitivity, and the Nazis who did not commit suicide unanimously accepted them, as far as I'm aware. Again, US law was no more relevant here than that of the USSR. Personally, I think we were too lenient, but that's just one man's opinion.
 

DeletedUser

I think that the Soviets are praised too much. Sure, they ended the war, but they left behind a trial of unnecessary destruction. 1 in 3 German women were raped and killed. Children as young as 10 who were thought to be helping the war were shot. I could go on...
 

DeletedUser

I think that the Soviets are praised too much. Sure, they ended the war, but they left behind a trial of unnecessary destruction. 1 in 3 German women were raped and killed. Children as young as 10 who were thought to be helping the war were shot. I could go on...
Yes, it's amazing how unpleasant people can be when you kill 20 million of them.
 

DeletedUser

Do you actually think EVERY single German in the war liked Hitler? Cause that what everyone else thinks.
I don't suppose anyone really thinks that. although plenty idolised him before the tide of war turned. Hitler came to power in 1933 and it was fairly clear what kind of policies he was going to pursue. By the start of the war every German had had 6 years to decide whether to remain in Germany and face the consequences of acquiescence or to resist or emigrate. Many took the latter course, including the very honourable Willy Brandt, but very few actively resisted. Every German knew that something terrible was happening to the Jews. Only a tiny number had the courage to do anything about it. You can't expect drunken Russian soldiers who may well be killed the next day to make fine distinctions between passive tolerance and active support. Of course, they behaved barbarously, but what happened in Russia was far worse. Perhaps you should save your condemnation for the instigators of the war rather than portraying them as victims.
 

DeletedUser30834

If you're saying that a nation state is a legal entity in the way that an individual is not, then you must accept that there are laws that apply to it outside its own national jurisdiction because it can only be legally constituted inter alia the community of nation-states as a whole.
A sovereign state, which Germany and Japan was, held it's own sovereignty except for what it agreed to release to others. The term sovereignty is important here because not all nation states are entirely sovereign and some have less sovereignty then provinces within a state. When a state is sovereign, it has to either agree to be bound by rules or laws created outside of it's sovereignty or someone has to force their acceptance of it. The UK, France, and the US cannot all the sudden say that everyone has to be a practicing Christian or every country has to execute anyone who is convicted of killing another human being and claim it is international law because all of the minor countries decided they wanted to continue trade with them and all the sudden 80% of the world practices Christianity or capitol punishment now. The way sovereign nations agree to giving up their sovereignty or to keep it and be bound by rules and laws outside of it's sovereignty is through treaty that it signs accepting those conditions or by the force of another entity. Several countries have no right to gang up and declare control over another country while pretending that other country is still a sovereign nation. The problem gets even more complicated and unjust when it is done after the fact of actions and those previous actions are all the sudden illegal only because rules and laws imposed outside the sovereign nation.


You say one state cannot impose its rules on another, but that's exactly what Germany did with its race laws, requisitioning, and forced labour on countries it invaded.
Are you attempting to say that because Germany acted ed, that gives the rest of the world the right to do the same when attempting to punish Germans for the same? I'm not sure I'm following you on this. You can remove the sovereignty of another state by force or getting them to agree with you. Germany picked force and nothing that they did in WWII can be considered good in my opinion. I would hope not in yours either.

In violating the laws of other communities it revoked its own right to international legal protection. The allies unilaterally offered some legal rights to the arraigned Nazis in order to demonstrate a greater moral sensitivity, and the Nazis who did not commit suicide unanimously accepted them, as far as I'm aware. Again, US law was no more relevant here than that of the USSR. Personally, I think we were too lenient, but that's just one man's opinion.
So you are saying two wrongs make a right (I know three rights make a left)? You see, international protection is not the issue, it's the imposition of laws and rules that were not in effect at the time of the actions. This is not a national right, it is a human right. No one should be charged and convicted of crimes that were not illegal for them at the time they committed the acts claimed to be in violation of. The Nazi's were charged and convicted of crimes that were not illegal when the allies did the exact same during the exact same times. Even while the Nuremberg trials were going on, Russia was doing some of the very same acts which 8 German officers, one who wasn't even at the trial were sentenced to death for. France was to until they noticed Germans being charged for it. It was a fraud that was little more then a victors party exerting retribution over the evil Germans. There was no moral sensitivity as there was plenty to convict the Germans on in which they were part of treaties and such that made them subject to the rules and laws. The fact that laws were made up in order to express anger is where the problem is and the only way it happened was by the allies forcing it onto them. Had the Axes won WWII, half the accusations of war crimes would have never existed because the Germans weren't subject to those rules and none of the war crimes that did exist would have been prosecuted or enforced.
 
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