Really? I think you are once again showing you cannot understand what you are talking about. Did I not bring up polygyny? Close relatives? Do I need to draw you a picture or something?
Your argument is, once again, not discussing same-sex marriage, but instead attempting to argue something that is related only in the context of marriage. This is a fallacy, as I indicated, and you very well know this. If you wish to discuss polygyny, child marriage, or sibling/cousin marriage, create a new thread.
As to
"two heterosexual people of the same sex wanting to get married to game the system or because they are like family and one of them has none and it is cheaper to do things that way ( A marriage of convenience)", that is legally allowed and is thus not a valid argument.
I also see you are still going on about homosexual marriage being legal before biblical restrictions came into play. You have no showed any examples of that.
Here's my big issue with debating things with you, Sum. You sit there crapping things out of your noggin' and NEVER provide any supporting evidence. On the other hand, you insist that I provide it, and I do so EVERY time. Let's face it, you're lazy and can't be bothered to research anything. Nonetheless, you now want examples to my assertions and, as I always do, here's just some of the supporting evidence:
http://jfh.sagepub.com/content/32/4/343.short
The origins and roles of same-sex relations in human societies - <
click here> -- reaching beyond 2000 b.c.
Lahey, Kathleen A., Kevin Alderson. Same-sex marriage: the personal and the political. Insomniac Press, 2000. ISBN 1894663632 / 978-1894663632
Hinsch, Bret (1990). Passions of the Cut Sleeve: The Male Homosexual Tradition in China. Reed Business Information, Inc.. ISBN 0520078691.
The Theodosian Code of 342 A.D., instituted by Christian emperors Constantius II and Constans, ended same-sex marriage in the Roman Empire <
click here>. If you wish to dismiss Emperor Nero
(who in fact married within the laws of Ancient Rome), claiming emperors can do whatever they want regardless of right or wrong, then you must accept that Constantius II and Constans likewise fall into that category, making the Theodosian Code no less valid for denying homosexuality and, therein, same-sex marriage.
No one else at the time was capable of marrying the same sex (in Ancient Rome).
This is patently false, as evidenced by the reports and studies presented above.
You consistantly ignore the example and the state the logic is flawed with out any real logic to back up you assertions. Just saying something is a fallacy is not a valid argument with out the logic to backup your statement.
That's the extent of your rebuttal. Your logical fallacies are at the core of your misinterpretations and/or deceptive arguments.
I stated already my beliefs are based on the bible, and without going into a different topic about if the bible is true or not, your argument that that's not logical fails.
The Bible, as stated multiple times, is not a valid reference. Regardless, I was courteous enough to demonstrate to you that the Bible, the New Testament, does not address same-sex marriage. In the posing of right and wrong, the Old Testament insists on killing homosexuals, liars, obstinate children, cheating wives, atheists, etc, while the New Testament insists on turning the other cheek, not judging, not imposing, and instead respecting God as the sole judge.
As this argument is about allowing or disallowing gay marriage, even if it is against your belief to respect homosexuality, it also states a hands-off policy. Therefore, in the argument of
should gay marriages be allowed, the Judaic & Muslim response would be,
"kill them all," while the Christian response should be,
"that is for God to decide."
Thus, when you say,
"no, it should not be allowed," you are in fact not posing a Christian tenet and instead allowing your prejudice to intercede when you impose judgement.